M13 - 04 Navigation
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- Created by: Bikboi
- Created on: 18-03-24 18:26
What are the 3 types of bearing?
Magnetic, Relative, True
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What is the reference for magnetic bearings?
Magnetic north
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What is the reference for relative bearings?
Aircraft lubber line
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What are VOR ground stations aligned to?
Magnetic north
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How is the magnetic bearing from a VOR station known?
Radial
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What is the QDR?
The magnetic bearing from the ground station to aircraft
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What is the QDM?
The magnetic bearing from the aircraft to ground station
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What is the relation between QDR and QDM?
They are always 180° apart
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If the relative bearing and magnetic heading are known, how can the QDM be calculated?
QDM = RB + MH
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What does VORDME allow?
Non-radial courses to be flown due to the distances provided by DME
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What is a Terminal VOR (TVOR)?
VOR stations installed near airports used mainly for holdings or VORDME approaches
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For position determination using VOR, what is required?
2 VOR ground stations (Theta/Theta)
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What is the frequency range used for VOR?
108-118 MHz
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What is the approximate range of VOR?
50-200 NM
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What is the frequency of the VOR identifier signal?
1020 Hz
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What is the frequency range for Terminal VOR (VOR)?
108 - 112 MHz at even tenth MHz
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What type of transmission is used for en-route navigation VOR?
High power of about 200W
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What is the range of Terminal VOR (TVOR)?
25 - 50 NM
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What signals are necessary to determine the radial?
Reference signal and variable signal
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What are the 2 types of VOR ground station?
Conventional and doppler
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How does a conventional VOR output a bearing?
The phase difference between the reference and variable phases
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What transmits the AM reference phase of a Doppler VOR?
Centre antenna
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What is the cone of confusion in relation to VOR?
The area overhead of the station where the received signals are not reliable
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What is the ICAO requirement for overall accuracy of the VOR system?
+/- 5°
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What is the difference between automatic and manual VOR?
Automatic VOR continuously indicates the VOR bearing of the ground station to the pilots and manual VOR supplies the pilots with deviation information to a preselected course (TO/FROM)
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What is the VOR Full Deflection defined as?
+/- 10°
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How must VOR antennas be polarised?
Horizontal
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What must the impedance of the antenna be?
50 ohms
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How are newer generations of VOR tuned?
Automatically by the FMGEC or manually by the MCDU/RCP
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In the case of VOR No Computed Data (NCD), what is shown on the DDRMI?
No failure flag but the related pointer stays in the 3 o'clock position
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In the case of VOR system malfunction, what is shown on the DDRMI?
Failure flag and the related pointer stays in the 3 o'clock position
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What is the purpose of Instrument Landing System (ILS)?
Gives guidance to pilots to the runway threshold even under bad weather conditions
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What does Instrument Landing System (ILS) provide to the pilots?
Lateral and vertical guidance
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What are the 5 categories of ILS ground facilities?
Category I, II, III A, III B, and III C
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What is the decision height for a category III B facility?
Less than 15m (50 ft) or no decision height.
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What is the decision height for a category III C facility?
No decision height
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What is the decision height for a category II facility?
Less than 60m (200 ft) but not lower than 30m (100 ft)
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What is the runway visual range for a category III C facility?
No limitation
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What is the runway visual range for a category I facility?
Not less than 550m
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What is the runway visual range for a category III B facility?
Less than 200m but not less than 50m
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What is the decision height for a category I facility?
Not lower than 60m (200 ft)
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What is the decision height for a category III A facility?
Less than 30m (100 ft) or no decision height
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What is the runway visual range for a category III A facility?
Not less than 200m
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What is the runway visual range for a category II facility?
Not less than 350m
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What is the frequency range for ILS localiser?
108 - 112 MHz only at odd tenth MHz
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How is the glide slope tuned with ILS?
Automatically tuned with localiser
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What is the channel spacing of ILS frequencies?
50 kHz
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If an aircraft is too far right of the localiser, what will they see?
Blue light
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If an aircraft is too far left of the localiser, what will they see?
Yellow light
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In regards to both localiser and glide slope, if on the correct path, what light is seen?
Green
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What is the glide slope angle?
3°
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What is the range of audio modulation frequencies in use by ILS?
90 Hz (Yellow) - 150 Hz (Blue)
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What is the method of measuring the localiser course?
Difference in depth of modulation (DDM)
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If the aircraft is at a DDM = 0, where is it in regards to the localiser
Localiser centre course
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What is the full deflection of an ILS localiser instrument?
DDM = 0.155
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What is the full deflection of an ILS glide slope instrument?
DDM = 0.175
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What other aircraft system has similar antenna requirements to ILS?
VOR
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Where do modern large airplanes locate the separate LOC antenna?
Under the radome
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How is ILS tuned?
Automatically by FMGEC or manually with MCDU/RCP
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When the aircraft is approaching from the opposite direction of the normal ILS beam it is known as back beam, how is this overcome?
Pilots select the front course for the ILS while approaching on the back beam
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What are the two types of marker used by the marker system?
Z marker and fan marker
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What frequency does the marker system transmit at?
A modulated 75 MHz
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What indication is given for each marker of the marker system?
Outer (OM) - Blue, Middle (MM) - Amber, Inner (IM) - White
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What indication is given for each marker of the marker system?
Outer (OM) - Dashes (400Hz), Middle (MM) - Dots and dashes (1300Hz), Inner (IM) - Dots (3000Hz)
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What position must the marker switch be in for an ILS approach?
Low
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What are the frequency bands used for WX radar?
C (5.3 - 5.8 GHz) and X (5.2 - 10.9+ GHz)
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What are the types of radar?
Primary, Secondary, Pulse and Continous wave
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What is primary radar also known as and why?
Passive reflector as the target only reflects a portion of the radar signal
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What is secondary radar also known as and why?
Active reflector as the transmitted signal activates a transponder in the target that sends a signal back
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What is Pulse Rrdar also known as and why?
Pulse Repetition Time as it transmits short pulses and waits for the echoes, many times a second.
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What is continuous wave (CW) radar?
The opposite of pulse radar as it is continuously transmitting and receiving
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What is a radar mile?
12.36 microseconds
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What is the radar Duty Cycle?
Relationship between pulse width and pulse repetition time
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What Pulse Repitition Frequency (PRF) would be used for short range?
High
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What is the purpose of Jitter/Dither?
Allows the necessary high number of hits for windshear detection and solves the issue of multiple trace echoes
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What restricts the wide dimension of a wave guide?
It must be greater than 1/2 wavelength minimum
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What does the narrow dimension of a waveguide determine?
Power capability
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In regards to waveguides, if the H-field is in the direction of the travel axis, what mode is it designated as?
H or TE
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In regards to waveguides, if the E-field is in the direction of the travel axis, what mode is it designated as?
E or TM
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For energy to propogate through a wave guide, what must be true?
E field cannot be parallel
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What are the 2 types of joint used to join waveguides?
Choke and rotational
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What is true of a loop coupling?
It is inductive
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What is true of a probe coupling?
It is capacitive
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What is used in elder radar systems for microwave generation?
Klystrons and Magnetrons
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What is required to decreases the losses of microwave generation?
Negative resistance semiconductor
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What are the types of antenna used to obtain the required narrow beam for radar?
Parabolic and flat plate
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Which radar antenna has less side lobes (and therefore less nuisance targets)?
Flat plate
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What frequency band is used for ADF?
190 - 1750 kHz
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What antenna types are used to provide relative bearing with ADF?
Loop and sense antenna
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Which ADF antenna intercepts the magnetic portion?
Loop antenna intercepts magnetic portion and couples this signal through the quadrantal error corrector to the ADF receiver
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Which ADF antenna intercepts the electric portion?
Sense antenna intercepts electric portion and couples this signal through the sense antenna coupler to the ADF receiver
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What types of ground station can be used for ADF navigation?
Locators, Non directional beacons and public radio stations
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Which ADF ground station is used for long range navigation?
Non directional beacons
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When does a loop antenna receive the electromagnetic wave maximum?
If the axis of the coil is perpendicular to the direction to the station
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When does a loop antenna receive the electromagnetic wave minimum?
If the axis of the coil is into the direction to the station
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Does the ADF use minimums or maximums?
Minimums
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What is a Goniometer?
A loop antenna like device that has a sine and cosine coil fixed to the aircraft structure, the amplitude and phases of the incoming signal determines the direction of the signal.
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What is Quadrantal error?
ADF bearings are shifted towards the longitudinal axis of the aircraft, especially bearings around the 45° angle.
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What does the BFO switch on the ADF control panel allow?
Enables reception of unmodulated A0/A1 signals in the BFO position and modulated signals in the OFF position
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What does the ANT/ADF switch on the ADF control panel allow?
Allows only reception of audio without direction finding (ANT position)
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What is QTE and QUJ?
QTE is the true bearing from an ADF ground station and QUJ is the true bearing to a ground station
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In the case of RMO receiver/indicator failure, what happens?
Red flag comes into view
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If no ADF reception is possible, what happens?
The pointer moves into a horizontal position
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Where is the ADF loop antenna located?
Bottom of fuselage
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If the ADF loop and sense antenna is located in one case, where is it located?
Top of fuselage
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How is an ADF self test performed?
On the receiver or ADF control panel
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What is indicated for a successful ADF self test?
45/315° and 1020 Hz tone
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How is ADF tuning carried out?
Automatically via FMGEC or manually with the MCDU
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What is DME?
Secondary pulse radar system that measures the slant range/distance from the aircraft to station
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What is the type of navigation used by DME?
RHO-RHO
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How is DME tuned?
Automatically via FMS or manually via CDU
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How many pulse pairs per second is used by DME?
2700
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If no aircraft with DME interogattors are in the vicinity of the DME ground station, what is emitted?
Random pulses known as squitter
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How many aircraft can be handled by a single DME station?
100
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When the DME station is in X mode, what is the delay?
50 microseconds
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When the DME station is in Y mode, what is the delay?
56 microseconds
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What is the difference between the interrogation and reply frequency of DME?
+/- 63 MHz
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What is DME Jittering?
When the signals from airborne equipment varies the repetition rate from one transmission to the next to allow the interrogator to find its own pulse among others.
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What makes up a DME system?
Interrogator, Antenna and Dual VOR/DME RMI
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What prevents the DME/ATC system from transmitting at the same time as TCAS?
Suppression signal from the online system
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What causes the DME mode to switch from standby to search?
When >650 pulse pairs are received
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If return pulses are lost for 10 seconds in the DME system, what is used?
Memory computed range from previous distance
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What is shown on the RDMI display for a DME fault?
Blank display
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How is the DME antenna polarised?
Vertically
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What does the Required Navigation Performance (RNP) equipment provide?
On board navigation capability that allows crews to fly aircraft along precise flight paths with exceptional accuracy, determines aircraft position with accuracy and integrity.
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Whats does the LRRA system do?
Measures the distance between extended MLG and ground height.
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What is the height range for the LRRA?
-20 - 2500ft
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What band of frequency is used by the LRRA system?
C band between 4.2 and 4.4 GHz
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What are the methods of measurement in use by the LRRA?
Pulse modulated RA, Constant modulation and constant difference frequency.
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How many receivers/transmitters are in use within the radio altimeter system?
2 Receiver/transmitters, each has a transmit and receive antenna.
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What is the radio altimeter accuracy requirements at 3 - 100ft?
3ft
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What is the radio altimeter accuracy requirements at 100 - 500ft?
3%
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What is the radio altimeter accuracy requirements above 500ft?
5%
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What are the 2 types of antenna in use by the RA system?
Horn radiator and microstrip
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When is 'DECISION HEIGHT' indicated on the radio altimeter indication?
Actual height is below selected decision height
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What is the ATC system based on?
Replies from airborne transponders in response to interrogations from ATC secondary radar
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What are the 2 types of ATC ground station in use?
Primary surveillance (PSR) and Secondary surveillance (SSR)
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What can distort signals from Primary Surveillance Radar (PSR)?
Weather conditions
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What are the 3 types of ATC in use?
Modes A, C and S
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What is mode S ATC used for?
Aircraft selection and transmission of flight data for ground surveillance
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What is mode A ATC used for?
Aircraft identification only
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What is mode C ATC used for?
Aircraft barometric height only
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What is true in relation to Mode S and modes A and C?
Mode S is fully compatible with Mode A and C
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What is the frequency of ATC interrogation and reply signals?
1030 MHz (Interrogate) and 1090 MHz (Reply)
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What pulses are transmitted for MODE A or C?
P1 and P3
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What pulses are transmitted for MODE S all call?
P1, P3 and P4
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What pulses are transmitted for MODE S selective call?
P1, P2, P5 and P6
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What is the time between pulses for Mode A transmissions?
8 Microseconds
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What is the time between pulses for Mode C transmissions?
21 Microseconds
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What is the time between pulses for P5 transmissions?
4.5 Microseconds
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What pulses are found in the main beam?
P1, P3, P4 and P6
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What pulse is used for side lobe suppression?
P2
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What is used as the control pulse?
P5
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What code is used for Mode C aircraft altitude?
Gray/Gilham in 11 pulse format
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What components make up the ATC system?
Transponder, 2 antennas and 1 ATC/TCAS control unit
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How many status LEDs are found on the ATC transponder test, when the test button is pressed?
10
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What does the ATC IDENT switch do?
Adds an additional identification pulse in the reply signal
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What does the ALT RPTG switch enable?
Altitude information
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What is used to select the 4 digit ATC code?
Keyboard to input a code from 0000 to 7777
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What is the ATC antenna band?
L band
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What type of antenna does the ATC system use?
Aluminium blade antenna that is vertically polarised
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How many ATC antennas are used?
4, 2 on top and 2 on bottom
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What frequency band does the weather radar operate in?
X or C
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What polarisation is used for ground mapping?
Horizontal
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What polarisation is used for WXR weather mode?
Vertical
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What must be used on a fiberglass radome?
Lightning diverters
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What can the weather radar NOT detect?
Dry/clear air turbulence
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What is the weather radar beam angle?
3° known as a pencil beam
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How is the weather antenna stabilised with pitch/roll?
Vertical gyro
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What is the Sensitivity Time Control (STC) / swept gain used for?
Distant signals don't appear to be a lower intensity
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When is the Sensitivity Time Control (STC) / swept gain at its minimum?
Minimum range
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What does the Sensitivity Time Control (STC) / swept gain do?
Adjusts the receiver gain to vary with range
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What is penetration compensation?
Compensates for power loss from first cloud so second cloud is shown correctly (In the same direction)
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When is penetration compensation not available?
Within the Sensitivity Time Control (STC) range?
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What is contour used for within the weather radar system?
Used to display strong weather on monochrome displays
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Why does the weather radar have access to the Inertial Reference System (IRS)?
Attitude information for scan stability.
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What colour is used to show wet turbulence on coloured displays?
Magenta
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What is the angle of the normal ARC?
90° either side
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What is the angle of the TURB mode?
60° either side
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What is the angle of the WINDSHEAR mode?
60°
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What changes with WXR range selection?
PRF (Low PRF at low range)
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What is the distance of the take-off windshear warning alert?
3 nm
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What is the distance of the approach windshear warning alert?
1.5 nm
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What are the 3 levels of alert for windshear?
Advisory, Caution and Warning
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What type of navigation is used for GPS/GNSS?
RHO-RHO
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What is the minimum amount of satellites used for GPS?
4
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What is the minimum amount of satellites used for GPS to detect an anomaly?
5
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What is the minimum amount of satellites used for GPS to detect an anomaly and remove the faulty satellite?
6
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What are the 3 data blocks used by GPS?
Clock, Ephermeris prediction and Health of satellite
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What data block is used for GPS satellite health?
3
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What is Psuedo random noise?
'random' digital codes used to determine the time of transmission from the satellite that repeat every millisecond
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What are the 3 major segments of the GPS?
Ground, Space and User
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What GPS segment is used to monitor the orbit of the satellites and correct if necessary?
Ground segment
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How many satellites are in orbit?
24 satellites
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How many active spare satellites are available?
3
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What is the horizontal accuracy of the Standard Position Service (SPS)
3.5 metres
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What signal(s) is used by the Precision Position Service (PPS)?
L1 and L2
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What is required to access the GPS L2 signal?
PY code
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What are the two types of signal from a GPS satellite?
L1 and L2
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Which GPS signal is low frequency?
L2
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What is the performance of a NAV system characterised by?
Accuracy, Availability, Continuity and Integrity
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What is the ideal layout of satellites for good GDOP?
1 satellite overhead and 3 on horizon (120° apart in azimuth)
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What does Random Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) do?
Checks the integrity of the GPS
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What 2 questions does the Random Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) ask?
Is there a GPS satellite failure and which satellite has the failure
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What is the mode of GPS navigation hierachy?
GPS/Inertial, DME/DME/Intertial, DME/VOR/Intertial-Interial only
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What is the diurnal effect of OMEGA/VLF?
Atmospheric changes from day to night that changes the wave travel.
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When is the greatest diurnal effect inaccury?
Dawn and dusk
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What is solar activity in relation to wave propagation?
Wave propagation is affect by solar flares and last up to a few hours
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How many stations are in use for OMEGA/VLF navigation?
8 Stations in total, 3 required to establish aircraft position
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What is the navigation type used by OMEGA/VLF?
RHO-RHO-RHO
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What is the primary sensor used for calculating navigation data in the Inertial Navigation System (INS)?
Accelerometer
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How many INS/IRS systems are onboard?
3
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How is angular velocity calculated?
Velocity / Radius of the earth
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What factors are considered to keep the horizontal platform steady?
Earth rotation rate, rate of transport, Coriolis effect, Earths anomalies
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How many gimbals are used on a mechanical platform to prevent the platform from locking up?
4
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What is the rate of rotation of the earth?
15° per hour
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What is the platform tilt rate at the equator?
15° per hour
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What is a schuler aligned platform?
A platform that is able to remain constantly horizontal to the surface of the earth
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What does the BAT light on the CDU indicate in relation to the Inertial Navigation System (INS)?
Running on battery power
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What does the BAT light on the MSU indicate in relation to the Inertial Navigation System (INS)?
Source/Battery power unable to provide enough voltage
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What is the purpose of the FMS?
To assist the pilot
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What does the FMS thrust mode annunciator show?
The current N1 limit mode for the A/T
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What is shown when the FMC thrust mode calculated is invalid?
3 horizontal dashes
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What information does the Fuel summation unit provide?
Total fuel on board weight
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How often is the FMS updated?
Every 28 days on thursdays
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If CDU has a wrong insert, what is shown?
MSG INVALID ENTRY in scratchpad
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What economy mode is automatically selected by the FMS?
Primary economy
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What does the cost index indicate?
Relates the direct hourly flying costs to the cost of fuel
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When is the autopilot LNAV mode available?
400ft radio altitude after take-off until LOC capture
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What does the indication 'NAV DATA OUT OF DATE' mean?
The FMS is using old version of the NAV database
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What plane does TCAS operate in?
Vertical
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How many antennas are used by the TCAS system?
Two directional antennas
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What is the capability coverage of TCAS?
30NM in range and +/- of 9000ft in altitude
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What is the display range of TCAS limited to?
+/- 1200 ft altitude
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What are the 4 target classifications?
Other traffic, Proximate traffic, Intruders TA and Threats RA
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What is the maximum display range and altitude difference of other traffic?
30NM and 2700ft
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What is the maximum display range and altitude difference of
Proximate traffic?
Proximate traffic?
6NM and 1200ft
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What is the maximum display range and altitude difference of
Intruders (TA)?
Intruders (TA)?
35-45 seconds and 1200ft
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What is the maximum display range and altitude difference of
Threats (RA)?
Threats (RA)?
20-40 seconds and +/- 400/700ft
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What indication is given for TA?
Aural warnings
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What indication is given for RA?
Aural and visual
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What is the encounter time for an amber traffic advisory?
45 seconds
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What is the encounter time for an red traffic advisory?
30 seconds and fly up/down command
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What frequency is the TCAS interrogation and reply signal?
Interrogation 1030 and Reply 1090 MHz
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What happens to the LWR TCAS antenna when the gear is down?
Goes omni directional
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What happens in relation to TCAS when a discrete inhibit from the weather radar is received due to a predictive windshear warning?
RA changes to TA and inhibits all TCAS aural warnings
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What happens when the TCAS is in ABV mode?
Altitude range is set to 9000ft above and 2700ft below
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What happens when the TCAS is in BLW mode?
Altitude range is set to 9000ft below and 2700ft above
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What is a TCAS directional antenna comprised of?
4 passive vertically-polarised elements
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What is TCAS whisper/shout?
Reduces the aircraft replying to any one interrogation (limiting interference) by transmitting a seperate signal of lower amplitude that nearby aircraft detect as sidelobe
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What does an amber circle indicate on TCAS?
TA
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What does a RED square indicate on TCAS?
RA
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What does a white diamond indicate on TCAS?
Non-Intruding A/C
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What does a white filled diamond indicate on TCAS?
Proximate traffic
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When is traffic information not shown on a ND?
PLAN mode
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What is meant by the Inertial Reference System (IRS) being a strap down system?
Not mounted on a gyro-stabilized platform and mounted directly to the airframe
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What gyros are used in the Inertial Reference System (IRS)?
Laser-based gyros that measure the angle speeds around the X,Y and Z axes of the aircraft
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What must be available for the Inertial Reference System (IRS) to operate?
FMS
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How many sensors are used by the Inertial Reference System (IRS)?
6, 3 gyros and 3 accelerometers.
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How long does the Inertial Reference System (IRS) take to align?
10 minutes
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When can the Inertial Reference System (IRS) system test not be performed?
Over 20 knots or in ATT mode
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When the Inertial Reference System (IRS) is switched on, how long does the ON DC light stay on?
5 seconds for battery load test
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When the Inertial Reference System (IRS) is switched on, when the battery test is complete, what is indicated?
ALIGN light
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During the first 4 minutes of alignment, what is shown on the right side of the ISDU?
7
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How can the ATT MODE be escaped?
Setting the switch to OFF
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When selected the Inertial Reference System (IRS) system to OFF, what happens?
ALIGN light comes on for 30 seconds
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What does a blinking ALIGN light indicate?
Problem
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What does a steady ALIGN light indicate?
Alignment in progress
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What does the ON DC light mean?
IRU gets its power from 28 V DC backup, less than 70 V AC.
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When in DC, which IRS shuts down after 5 minutes?
Right, Left stays operational
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When does the ON DC light come on for 5 seconds?
Beginning of alignment
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What does Automatic Dependent Surveillance Broadcast (ADSB) In require?
Receiver, Processing system (traffic computer) and a HMI unit.
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What must aircraft with a maximum take-off mass greater than 5700kg have?
ADS-B and Mode S Enhanced surveillance
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What must all aircraft operating IFR/GAT in europe be compliant with?
Mode S elementary surveillance
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What is the benefits of RNP?
Reduces missed approaches, Saves fuel and time, Increases airspace capacity, Reducing stepdown and circling approaches, Greater nav precision and accuracy.
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What is ADS-B OUT?
The signal broadcasted containing identtity, position and other information from on board systems, this can be captured on the ground.
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What is ADS-B IN?
The signal received on board other aircraft in order to facilitate airborne traffic situational awareness, spacing, separation and self-seperation
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What is contained in the ADS-B aircraft identification signal?
Unique 24-bit aircraft address, ident and mode A code
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Other cards in this set
Card 2
Front
What is the reference for magnetic bearings?
Back
Magnetic north
Card 3
Front
What is the reference for relative bearings?
Back
Card 4
Front
What are VOR ground stations aligned to?
Back
Card 5
Front
How is the magnetic bearing from a VOR station known?
Back
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